乐考网今日整理了一些练习题供大家参考，各位小伙伴要好好练习多做题可以有效地从中得到做题经验也会加强做题的能力跟速度，各位小伙伴要加油哟！
1、Pereira should forecast that the ROE fｏｒGlobales is likely to decline:【单选题】
A.more slowly than that of the industry competitor.
B.at the same rate as the industry competitor.
C.more rapidly than that of the industry competitor.
正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct. Based on the principle of mean reversion, the high ROE fｏｒ both firms should revert towards the mean. Globales has a higher cash flow component to its return than the peer firm, however, so its high return on common equity should persist longer than that of the peer firm. The peer firm has a higher accruals component, so it is likely to revert more quickly.
2、How many of Yeung\\\\\'s constraints would be accurately regarded as a constraint in an investment policy statement?【单选题】
A.One.
B.Two.
C.Three.
正确答案:B
答案解析:What Yeung has identified as Constraint 1 is properly classified as a return objective ａｎｄ not a constraint. Investment constraints are factors that restrict investment choices. Constraint 2 is unexampled of time horizon constraint. Constraint 3 is an example of liquidity constraint.
3、Based on Exhibit 4, Singh ａｎｄ Ho should conclude that under Scenario 2, shares of Bern are:【单选题】
A.undervalued.
B.fairly valued.
C.overvalued.
正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct.The total market value of the firm is the sum of the debt, preferred stock, ａｎｄ common stock market values: 15,400 + 4,000 + 18,100 = 37,500 million.WACC = [wd × rd(1 – tax rate)] + (wp × rp) + (we × re).= [(15,400/37,500)(0.060)(1 – 0.269] + (4,000/37,500)(0.055) + (18,100/37,500)(0.11).= 7.70%.Under the assumption that Bern has a low growth rate because it did not receive regulatory approval fｏｒits new drugs, the value of Bern can be analyzed using a two-stage valuation model.Year01234g1.50%1.50%1.50%0.75%FCFFn (€ millions)3,2263,274.393,323.513,373.363,398.66Present Value Factor0.9285290.8621670.800547Present Value (€ millions)3,040.372,865.422,700.53The terminal value at the end of Year 3 is TV3 = FCFF4/(WACC – g4).TV3 = 3,398.66/(0.0770 – 0.0075) = €48,921.38 million.The total value of operating assets = (3,040.37 + 2,865.42 + 2,700.53) + 48,921.38/(1 + 0.0770)3.= 8,606.32 + 39,163.88= €47,770.20 million.
4、What is the value of the coefficient of determination?【单选题】
A.0.8261.
B.0.7436.
C.0.8623.
正确答案:B
答案解析:B is correct. The coefficient of determination is the same as R-squared.
5、A benefit of performing Task 1 is that it:【单选题】
A.enables the model to price bonds with embedded options.
B.identifies benchmark bonds that have been mispriced by the market.
C.allows investors to realize arbitrage profits through stripping ａｎｄ reconstitution.
正确答案:A
答案解析:A is correct. Calibrating a binomial interest rate tree to match a specific term structure is important because we can use the known valuation of a benchmark bond from the spot rate pricing to verify the accuracy of the rates shown in the binomial interest rate tree. Once its accuracy is confirmed, the interest rate tree can then be used to value bonds with embedded options. While discounting with spot rates will produce arbitrage-free valuations fｏｒ option-free bonds, this spot rate method will not work fｏｒbonds with embedded options where expected future cash flows are interest-rate dependent (as rate changes impact the likelihood of options being exercised). The interest rate tree allows fｏｒthe alternative paths that a bond with embedded options might take.B is incorrect because calibration does not identify mispriced benchmark bonds. In fact, benchmark bonds are employed to prove the accuracy of the binomial interest rate tree, as they are assumed to be correctly priced by the market.C is incorrect because the calibration of the binomial interest rate tree is designed to produce an arbitrage-free valuation approach ａｎｄ such an approach does not allow a market participant to realize arbitrage profits though stripping ａｎｄ reconstitution.
以上就是乐考网小编整理的一些练习题，小伙伴要多多练习同时不要抱着侥幸心理，也不要给自己太大的压力，相信只要踏踏实实的复习就一定能通过。祝大家能够顺利通过考试!
